Anatomy Final Flashcards
Which of the following hormone pairs are antagonists that regulate blood calcium ion levels? a) follicle-stimulating hormone/luteinizing hormoneb) insulin/glucagonc) thyroid hormone/parathyroid hormoned) parathyroid hormone/calcitonin
d) parathyroid hormone/calcitonin
Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland zone or area with the class of hormones it produces?a) zona reticularis: catecholaminesb) zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoidsc) zona fasciculata: gonadocorticoidsd) medulla: glucocorticoids
b) zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids
One can predict that a person suffering from diabetes mellitus would probably have ______.a) increased secretion of ANP (atrial natiuretic peptide)b) increased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)c) decreased secretion of catecholaminesd) decreased secretion of PTH (parathyroid hormone/parathormone)
b) increased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? It does not require a second messenger to effect a response. It is very specific in the cell type it targets. It causes positive feedback. It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.
It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________. glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.a) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengersb) peptide hormones are converted by cell membranes enzymes into second messengersc) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unitd) hormones alter cellular operations through direct stimulation of a gene
G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.a) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNAb) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMPc) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organd) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time
binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus? activates or deactivates enzymes induces secretory activity alters plasma membrane permeability stimulates production of an action potential
stimulates production of an action potential
hormonal stimulus--------------testosteroneneural stimulus------------------epinephrinehumoral and hormonal--------aldosteronehumoral---------------------------parathyroid
hormonal stimulus--------------testosteroneneural stimulus------------------epinephrinehumoral and hormonal--------aldosteronehumoral---------------------------parathyroid
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________. travel by arteries to the pituitary enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
ACTH ________. secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla is not a tropic hormone
secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ________. it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
Why does antidiuretic hormone help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid? It causes secretion of solutes by the kidney, resulting in a decreased solute concentration. It causes more sodium secretion by the kidney, resulting in a decreased solute concentration. It causes less sodium reabsorption by the kidney, resulting in a decreased solute concentration. It causes reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in increased blood water volume and a decreased solute concentration. It causes less reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in lower solute reabsorption and a decreased solute concentration.
It causes reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in increased blood water volume and a decreased solute concentration.
ADH ________. is inhibited by alcohol is produced in the adenohypophysis promotes dehydration increases urine production
is inhibited by alcohol
Oxytocin ________. controls milk production exerts its most important effects during menstruation release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism is an adenohypophyseal secretion
release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________. conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis is partly contained within the infundibulum is the site of prolactin synthesis connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
is partly contained within the infundibulum
growth hormone------------bones and musclesmammary gland------------prolactintestes or ovaries-----------FSHthyroid------------------------thyroid stimulating hormoneadrenal cortex--------------adrenocorticopic hormone
growth hormone------------bones and musclesmammary gland------------prolactintestes or ovaries-----------FSHthyroid------------------------thyroid stimulating hormoneadrenal cortex--------------adrenocorticopic hormone
The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________. thyroid hormone parathyroid hormone calcitonin gonadotropic hormones
parathyroid hormone
Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium? increase in intestinal absorption of calcium ions inhibition of calcitonin synthesis activation of osteoclasts increase calcium ion reabsorption by the kidneys
inhibition of calcitonin synthesis
How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress? by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin by releasing the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
A 25-year-old male was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl. On assessment, the nurse observed that his breathing was deep and rapid, and his breath smelled of acetone. His face was flushed, his skin was dry, and his pH was low. What is the diagnosis and what physiological response is occurring? Cushing's syndrome. The excess glucocorticoids are uncontrollably activating the sympathetic nervous system. Diabetes insipidus. The nervous system responds by initiating rapid deep breathing to blow off carbon dioxide from the blood and increase pH. Diabetes mellitus. The nervous system responds by initiating rapid deep breathing to blow off carbon dioxide from the blood and increase pH. Hypersecretion of catecholamines. The sympathetic nervous system is being uncontrollably activated. Cretinism. The hypersecretion of thyroid hormone is increasing the metabolic rate.
Diabetes mellitus. The nervous system responds by initiating rapid deep breathing to blow off carbon dioxide from the blood and increase pH.
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus? enzyme humoral hormonal neural
enzyme
Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary? ADH oxytocin HGH none of these
none of these
Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids that help the body to resist stressors? follicle-stimulating hormone adrenocorticotropic hormone prolactin thyroid-stimulating hormone
adrenocorticotropic hormone
What gland secretes growth hormone? adrenal cortex posterior pituitary (lobe) anterior pituitary (lobe) thyroid gland
anterior pituitary (lobe)
Which of the following represents hormonal control of insulin release? increase in blood glucose levels release of glucagon by the pancreatic islets release of acetylcholine by parasympathetic nerve fibers rise in blood levels of amino acids and fatty acids
release of glucagon by the pancreatic islets
Which of the following glands is found atop the kidneys? parathyroid adrenal thyroid pituitary
adrenal
Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs? right ventricle left atrium left ventricle right atrium
right ventricle
Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk? right atrium left atrium left ventricle right ventricle
right ventricle
Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit? left atrium right ventricle right atrium left ventricle
left ventricle
Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________. ventricular systole ventricular diastole
ventricular diastole
Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles? The majority of ventricular filling is caused by contraction of the atria. Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves. Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles. Pressures in the atria and ventricles would be equal. Pressure in the ventricles would be greater than in the atria.
Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.
What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close? higher ventricular pressure than aortic pressure greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle equal ventricular and aortic pressures
greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle
Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling. isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric contraction ventricular ejection, ventricular relaxation, isovolumetric contraction isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation ventricular ejection, isovolumetric contraction, isovolumetric relaxation
isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)? semilunar valves only AV valves only both semilunar and AV valves
AV valves only
What does the ECG wave tracing represent? contraction of the heart electrical activity in the heart
electrical activity in the heart
What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing? ventricular repolarization atrial repolarization atrial depolarization ventricular depolarization
ventricular depolarization
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______. reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the myocardium reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the lungs to the heart reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the head to the heart
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________. coronary veins fossa ovalis coronary sinus coronary arteries
coronary arteries
Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart? epicardium parietal layer visceral layer fibrous pericardium
fibrous pericardium
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________. finding the papillary muscles locating the apex noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls tracing out where the auricles connect
noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium? epicardium fibrous pericardium pericardial cavity myocardium
pericardial cavity
outermost layer of the serious pericardium------------parietal layerinner lining of the heart-------------------------------------endicardiumserious layer covering the heart--------------------------epicardiumheart muscle--------------------------------------------------myocardium
outermost layer of the serious pericardium------------parietal layerinner lining of the heart-------------------------------------endicardiumserious layer covering the heart--------------------------epicardiumheart muscle--------------------------------------------------myocardium
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________. lacks striations cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium has more nuclei per cell
has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
During the period of ventricular filling ________. pressure in the heart is at its peak blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles it is represented by the P wave on the ECG the atria remain in diastole
blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells ________. it would be less than 1-2 ms contractions would last as long as the refractory period it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole? venae cavae pulmonary trunk aorta pulmonary veins
pulmonary trunk
abnormally fast heart rate----------------------------------------tachycardiaheart rate at rest under both autonomic division signaling------vagal tonean abnormally slow heart rate----------------------------------brachycardiadifference between resting and maximal cardiac output-------cardiac reserve
abnormally fast heart rate----------------------------------------tachycardiaheart rate at rest under both autonomic division signaling------vagal tonean abnormally slow heart rate----------------------------------brachycardiadifference between resting and maximal cardiac output-------cardiac reserve
heart muscle is deprived of oxygen----------------------ischemiatotal heart relaxation-----------------------------------------quiescent perioddeath of heart muscle cells--------------------------------infarctioncondition of rapid and irregular or out of phase contraction of heart muscles--------------------------------------------------------fibrillationan abnormal pacemaker-----------------------------------ectopic focus
heart muscle is deprived of oxygen----------------------ischemiatotal heart relaxation-----------------------------------------quiescent perioddeath of heart muscle cells--------------------------------infarctioncondition of rapid and irregular or out of phase contraction of heart muscles--------------------------------------------------------fibrillationan abnormal pacemaker-----------------------------------ectopic focus
In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______. number of Z discs number of desmosomes number of slow Ca+2 channels resting membrane potential
resting membrane potential
Which of the following cannot trigger tachycardia? cardiovascular center increased sympathetic stimulation increased vagal tone increased venous return
increased vagal tone
At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart? 30 beats of the heart per minute 75 beats of the heart per minute 50 beats of the heart per minute 40 beats of the heart per minute
75 beats of the heart per minute
Treatment of an abscess often requires that it be surgically drained because ______. the wall of the abscess prevents proper blood flow into the pus the wall of the abscess prevents proper elimination of wastes from the enclosed pus the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens the wall of the abscess prevents macrophages from differentiating into monocytes in the pus
the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens
Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens? inhibit production of antibodies small molecules reactivity with an antibody contain many repeating chemical units
reactivity with an antibody
Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus. True False
false
How does a lymphocyte become immunocompetent? Lymphocytes rapidly proliferate to form an army of cells exactly like themselves and bearing the same antigen-specific receptors. Lymphocytes must be relatively unresponsive to self-antigens so that they do not attack the body's own cells. Lymphocytes must be able to recognize their one specific antigen by binding to it. An antigen binds to a particular lymphocyte that has a receptor for it.
Lymphocytes must be able to recognize their one specific antigen by binding to it.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. NK cells attack transplanted organs. NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria? The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells. Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface. All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize. The phagocytes look for the absence of "self" proteins.
The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis? natural killer (NK) cells cytokines complement proteins interferons
complement proteins
Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis? T cells natural killer (NK) cells antibodies and complement proteins interferons
antibodies and complement proteins
Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity? foreign tissue transplants intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells some cancer cells pathogens in the lumen of the stomach
pathogens in the lumen of the stomach
Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types? antigen-presenting cells all nucleated cells
antigen-presenting cells
Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens? class I MHC proteins class II MHC proteins
class II MHC proteins
Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them? all nucleated cells dendritic cells macrophages B cells
all nucleated cells
What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease? inflammation the adaptive defense system intact skin and mucous membranes antimicrobial proteins and various phagocytic cells
intact skin and mucous membranes
Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except ________. juvenile diabetes hepatitis rabies pregnancy
juvenile diabetes
A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition. He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi's sarcoma) and a persistent cough. A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes, and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count. Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex. What is likely to be the man's problem and what is his prognosis? He probably has severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome. His outlook is poor as his immune system has failed, and he will not be able to fight other infections. He is probably suffering from Hashimoto's thyroiditis. His outlook is poor as his immune system is attacking his thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism. He is probably suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus. His outlook is poor as his immune system is attacking itself and other body systems. He is probably suffering from AIDS. His outlook is poor once the disease has progressed to this advanced stage. There is no cure, and drug therapy has had limited short-term success.
He is probably suffering from AIDS. His outlook is poor once the disease has progressed to this advanced stage. There is no cure, and drug therapy has had limited short-term success.
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system? innate external defenses innate internal defenses adaptive defenses
innate external defenses
What cells make antibodies? memory B cells cytotoxic T cells memory T cells plasma B cells
plasma B cells
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to? pathogen antigen an antigenic determinant antibody
an antigenic determinant
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated? humoral immunity antibody-mediated immunity cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells? macrophages Cytotoxic T cells B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
When the white blood cell count is depressed, the classic signs of infection such as redness, heat, and swelling are not manifested. In this case, should the nurse avoid administering aspirin? Yes, aspirin should be avoided because it will prevent blood clotting. No, aspirin can still be used to treat the pain. Yes, aspirin should be avoided because it would prevent the remaining white blood cells from responding to the infection. Yes, aspirin should be avoided because aspirin would disguise a fever that would indicate infection. No, aspirin can be used because the infection is still occurring even if the signs are not showing.
Yes, aspirin should be avoided because aspirin would disguise a fever that would indicate infection.
What activates CD8 cells? antigens on class II MHC proteins antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins peptides containing 14-17 amino acids exogenous antigens
antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins
Which of the following are mismatched? severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
Which of the following do NOT serve as antigen-presenting cells (APC)? macrophages B cells natural killer cells dendritic cells
natural killer cells
What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells? APC cytotoxin T (TC) cells regulatory T (TReg) cells helper T (TH) cells
cytotoxin T (TC) cells
What is ventilation-perfusion coupling? matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries matching the amount of oxygen exchanged for carbon dioxide in the alveoli to the exchange at the tissue level matching the amount of blood flow through the body to the amount of oxygen in the air sacs matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to pO2 and pCO2 values in the blood
matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries
What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant in a healthy person? arterial blood pH arterial blood oxygen level oxygen needs of cells arterial blood carbon dioxide level
arterial blood carbon dioxide level
Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation? airway resistance alveolar surface tension partial pressure of oxygen in the air lung compliance
partial pressure of oxygen in the air
What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation? intrapulmonary pressure change smooth muscle contraction environmental stimuli air sac contraction
intrapulmonary pressure change
A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Why did the patient stop breathing? The sudden increase in oxygen in his body caused oxygen toxicity, generating huge amounts of free radicals, resulting in profound CNS disturbances, coma, and death. His arterial PCO2 chemoreceptors had become unresponsive. Declining PO2 levels now act as the stimulus. Increased PO2 levels will prevent this stimulus, and breathing will cease. The high level of oxygen in his body caused hypocapnia, which resulted in an unbalancing of his body's pH, causing his muscular and nervous systems to fail. The increase in oxygen in his body caused hypoventilation to the extent that breathing was no longer visible to the nurse. Oxygen dilates pulmonary arterioles, increasing perfusion and worsening an already poor ventilation-perfusion mismatch. In addition, oxygen drives more CO2 off of hemoglobin, dumping it into alveoli from which it cannot be removed.
Oxygen dilates pulmonary arterioles, increasing perfusion and worsening an already poor ventilation-perfusion mismatch. In addition, oxygen drives more CO2 off of hemoglobin, dumping it into alveoli from which it cannot be removed.
During inhalation, the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. air moves up the trachea. the diaphragm relaxes. oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
Which statement is correct? Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells. As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated. Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration. Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries. In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
After blood becomes oxygenated, it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells. it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs. it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen.
it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
Hemoglobin uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells. is the site of cellular respiration. has five subunits. is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen. is found in blood plasma.
is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx? voice production serving as part of the respiratory zone routing air and food into the proper channels providing a patent airway
serving as part of the respiratory zone
If a red blood cell is 100% saturated, how many molecules of O2 are bound to it? 250 million molecules of O2 4 molecules of O2 1 billion molecules of O2
1 billion molecules of O2
From the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, hemoglobin is __________ when the partial pressure of oxygen is 40 mm Hg. Would this be in the lungs, inactive tissues, or active tissues? 75% saturated; in the inactive tissues 98% saturated; in the active tissues 75% saturated; in the active tissues 35% saturated; in the active tissues
75% saturated; in the inactive tissues
Predict which way exercise would shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. Would this shift in the curve increase or decrease hemoglobin saturation? The curve would shift to the right thus increasing the hemoglobin saturation. The curve would shift to the right thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation. The curve would shift to the left thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation. The curve would shift to the left thus increasing the hemoglobin saturation.
The curve would shift to the right thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation
How is the majority of CO2 transported in blood? converted to and transported as bicarbonate ions dissolved in the plasma bound to the heme portion of hemoglobin bound to the globin portion of hemoglobin
converted to and transported as bicarbonate ions
Which of the following represents all of the processes involved in respiration in the correct order? pulmonary ventilation; external respiration; transport of respiratory gases; internal respiration; pulmonary ventilation; external ventilation; internal ventilation; transport of respiratory gases external respiration; internal respiration; transport of respiratory gases pulmonary respiration; external ventilation; transport of respiratory gases; internal ventilation;
pulmonary ventilation; external respiration; transport of respiratory gases; internal respiration;
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae? routing air and food into proper channels reclaiming heat and moisture from expired air increasing the mucosal surface area exposed to air filtering, heating, and moistening incoming air during inhalation
routing air and food into proper channels
In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______. in the conducting zone structures of the lungs due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells to permit adequate surface tension in the alveoli because the presence of collapsed alveoli prevents surfactant production
due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells
Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle's law? The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs. The partial pressure of a gas in the air you breathe in is equal to the total atmospheric pressure times the fractional concentration of the gas. How well a gas dissolves in a liquid such as blood depends on both its partial pressure and its solubility.
The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.
Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity? internal intercostals and external oblique diaphragm and internal intercostals diaphragm and external intercostals
diaphragm and external intercostals
If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung? lung volume will stay the same lungs will collapse lungs will inflate
lungs will collapse
How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle? The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase. The partial pressure of O2 would increase, and the partial pressure of CO2 would decrease.
The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.
Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration? O2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries, and CO2 would diffuse into the cells. Both O2 and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries. O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.
O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.
Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange? partial pressure of the gases available surface area rate of blood flow through the tissue the molecular weight of the gas
the molecular weight of the gas
What is the primary form in which carbon dioxide is carried in blood? as carbonic acid in plasma dissolved in plasma chemically bound to hemoglobin as a bicarbonate ion in plasma
as a bicarbonate ion in plasma
What area in the brain sets the respiratory rhythm? pontine respiratory group (PRG) ventral respiratory group (VRG) hypothalamus dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
ventral respiratory group (VRG)
What directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors, thus increasing respiration? high CO2 (carbon dioxide) H+ (hydrogen ions) low O2 (oxygen) high pH
H+ (hydrogen ions)
As a result of hyperventilation, what will happen to the partial pressures of CO2 (pCO2) and pH? increased pCO2 and decreased pH decreased pCO2 and decreased pH increased pCO2 and increased pH decreased pCO2 and increased pH
decreased pCO2 and increased pH
Which receptors inhibit inspiration during hyperinflation of the lungs? peripheral chemoreceptors irritant receptors Hypothalamic receptors pulmonary stretch receptors
pulmonary stretch receptors
What stimulates increased respiration at the beginning of exercise? sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors increased hydrogen ion levels decreased plasma oxygen levels increased plasma carbon dioxide levels
sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors
Patients with rhinitis often have "watery eyes" because ______. the infection has stimulated increased lacrimal fluid secretion by the lacrimal glands the infection has caused inflammation of the nasolacrimal ducts the paranasal sinuses are blocked with excess mucus All of the listed responses are correct.
the infection has caused inflammation of the nasolacrimal ducts
During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______. thoracic wall parietal pleura of the other lung visceral pleura of the same lung visceral pleura of the other lung
visceral pleura of the same lung
Why is a patient with tuberculosis often noncompliant with treatment? Due to the physiological side effects of the antibiotic used, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better. TB infection causes damage to the nervous system, resulting in changes in personality and judgment. Due to the psychological side effects of the antibiotic used, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better. Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.
Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.
What muscle forms the labia of the mouth? orbicularis oculi buccinator orbicularis oris zygomaticus
orbicularis oris
During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated? gastric phase cephalic phase intestinal phase
intestinal phase
enzymatic breakdown of any type of food------hydrolysisprocess by which simpler chemical units pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph----absorptionchemical or mechanical process of breaking down food into simpler units----digestionwave like smooth units that move food-----peristalisis
enzymatic breakdown of any type of food------hydrolysisprocess by which simpler chemical units pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph----absorptionchemical or mechanical process of breaking down food into simpler units----digestionwave like smooth units that move food-----peristalisis
Select the correct statement about absorption. Amino acid transport is linked to chloride transport. If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated. Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine. Carbohydrates diffuse across the villus epithelium and are then actively transported into blood capillaries.
If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.
Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds? fungiform and circumvallate fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform palatine and circumvallate circumvallate and filiform
fungiform and circumvallate
A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The nurse tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient's wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What should the nurse say? The stomach's acid will digest the tube, leading to possible infections through the degraded tube. Contraction of the muscles in the stomach wall will interfere with the delivery of the food through the tube. There is less risk for vomiting, which could cause complications. Digestion is also completed in the small intestines, so there is no need for the stomach with a liquid food diet. Insertion of a tube into the stomach will likely cause gastric ulcers.
There is less risk for vomiting, which could cause complications. Digestion is also completed in the small intestines, so there is no need for the stomach with a liquid food diet.
A patient was admitted to the hospital because of severe epigastric pain. He has noted that his stools were darker than the usual brown color. He appears pale and very anxious. The history reports that he drinks 2-3 beers per day and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Based on the assessment data, what condition might the nurse determine this patient has, and why? The patient most likely has a bleeding gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. As his stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious, he probably has a bleeding ulcer. The patient most likely has a gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. The patient most likely has gallstones. The radiating pain indicates gallstones, and the darker than usual stools indicates a problem with lipid absorption. The patient most probably has appendicitis. The darker than usual stools indicates that the appendix has ruptured, and the stools contain blood. The patient most likely has internal bleeding, as his stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious.
The patient most likely has a bleeding gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. As his stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious, he probably has a bleeding ulcer.
The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________. pancreatic acini hepatopancreatic ampulla portal vein bile canaliculus
hepatopancreatic ampulla
The lamina propria is composed of ________. dense regular connective tissue reticular connective tissue dense irregular connective tissue loose connective tissue
loose connective tissue
What is the major digestive function of the pancreas? production of bicarbonate ions production of glucagon production of insulin production of digestive enzymes
production of digestive enzymes
What role of the stomach is essential to life? production of hydrochloric acid production of intrinsic factor production of chyme production of VIP
production of intrinsic factor
Which vitamins are made by the bacteria in the large intestine? vitamins A and E vitamins C and D B complex and D vitamins B complex and K vitamins
B complex and K vitamins
Ellen, a 47-year-old woman who has suffered kidney disease for several years, has been diagnosed with proteinuria. Her legs and feet are so swollen that she has difficulty walking. Her hands and her left arm are also swollen. What is proteinuria, and could this condition be playing a role in her swollen limbs? Proteinuria is when there are excessive levels of protein in the blood, resulting in an increased osmotic pressure. This does not relate to the edema seen in this case. Proteinuria is when the liver does not make enough plasma proteins, resulting in a decreased osmotic pressure. This causes more fluid to leave the blood into the tissues in the body, resulting in edema. Proteinuria is a condition in which large amounts of plasma proteins pass into the glomerular filtrate and are excreted in the urine, decreasing the osmotic pressure. This causes more fluid to leave the blood into the tissues in the body, resulting in edema. Proteinuria is when there are excessive levels of protein in the blood, resulting in an increased osmotic pressure. The increased osmotic pressure forces fluid into the tissues, resulting in edema. Proteinuria is a condition in which proteins are actively secreted into the kidneys at the DCT. This decreases the osmotic pressure, causing more fluid to leave the blood into the tissues in the body, resulting in edema.
Proteinuria is a condition in which large amounts of plasma proteins pass into the glomerular filtrate and are excreted in the urine, decreasing the osmotic pressure. This causes more fluid to leave the blood into the tissues in the body, resulting in edema.
Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)? Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy. Only about 3% of older adults have any loss of kidney function. Only obese and diabetic older adults have any kidney dysfunction. Kidney function remains the same throughout life, regardless of age.
Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy.
Where in the nephron does most solute reabsorption occur? proximal convoluted tubule glomerulus distal convoluted tubule collecting duct
proximal convoluted tubule
How can an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) such as captopril be effective as an antihypertensive? ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less antidiuretic hormone to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing vasodilation in the blood vessels. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less atrial natriuretic peptide to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less aldosterone to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure.
ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure.
The __________ keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed from the bladder and prevents leaking between voiding. prostatic urethra external urethral orifice external urethral sphincter internal urethral sphincter
internal urethral sphincter
Select the correct statement about urinary system development. The pronephros (first tubule system) develops during the tenth week of gestation. Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges. The metanephric ducts will become the urethras. The mesonephros will develop into the kidneys.
Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges.
Select the correct statement about the ureters. The ureter is innervated by parasympathetic nerve endings only. The epithelium is stratified squamous like the skin, which allows a great deal of stretch. Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine. The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.
The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.
If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean? Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed. The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood. The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult. Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules.
Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed.
Which of the following does not describe the juxtaglomerular complex? Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone. Its granular cells produce rennin. It regulates the rate of filtrate formation. It helps control systemic blood pressure.
Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone.
plays role in urine concentration
vasa recta
fenestrated vessels that allow passages of all plasma elements but not blood cells
glomerular capilarilies
high pressure vessel that forces fluid and solutes into the glomerular capsule
afferent arterioles
low pressure porous vessels that reabsorb solutes and water from the tubule cells
peritubular cappilaries
may form meandering vessels or bundles of long straight vessels
efferent arterioles
The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. the renal pyramid the renal papilla Bowman's capsule and glomerulus the descending loop of Henle
Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus? a system for concentrating urine a system that protects the nephron from some chemicals found in blood a system for diluting urine a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure
a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure
Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)? the pressure of the fluid in the bladder the stretching of the bladder wall motor neurons the sympathetic efferents
the stretching of the bladder wall
Select the correct statement about the nephrons. The glomerulus is correctly described as the proximal end of the proximal convoluted tubule. The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron.
The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.
What is the function of the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)? The macula densa cells pass regulatory signals between other cells of the juxtaglomerular complex. The macula densa cells produce filtrate. The macula densa cells sense blood pressure in the afferent arteriole. The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.
The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the cortical nephrons? The efferent arteriole of the cortical nephrons supplies the peritubular capillaries. Cortical nephrons form the majority of nephrons in the kidney. The glomerulus of the cortical nephron is closer to the cortex-medulla junction. Cortical nephrons have a short nephron loop.
The glomerulus of the cortical nephron is closer to the cortex-medulla junction.
The frequency of cystitis in men is lower than in women because ______. the external urethral sphincter in men is usually closed the internal urethral sphincter in men is usually closed the pH of a man's urine is usually more acidic than a woman's urine the male urethra is longer than the female urethra
the male urethra is longer than the female urethra
Since most patients with renal failure produce little or no urine, hemodialysis often involves removal of water from the blood. However, side-effects may develop if too much fluid is removed from the blood. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential side-effects? dizziness vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles low blood pressure muscle fatigue
vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
Which of the following is not true regarding tubular reabsorption? It is a reclamation process. It is a purely passive transport process. It occurs via transcellular or paracellular routes. It involves hormonal signals in the collecting ducts.
It is a purely passive transport process.
Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? macula densa mesangial cells granular cells podocyte cells
podocyte cells
Which statement best describes the function of the urethra? The urethra transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. The urethra transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. The urethra functions in urine storage. The urethra carries out processes that form urine.
The urethra transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.
An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________. slightly higher than water the same as water less than water much higher than water
slightly higher than water
What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys help regulate water and electrolyte excretion by the kidneys help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys help regulate urea absorption by the kidneys
help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys
Urinary incontinence may occur if a person has ______. an internal urethral sphincter that is too frequently relaxed an external urethral sphincter that is too frequently contracted an overactive detrusor muscle All of the listed responses are correct.
an overactive detrusor muscle
In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the ________. thin segment is freely permeable to water thin segment is not permeable to sodium and chloride thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption thick segment is permeable to water
thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption
The most common cause of acid-base imbalance is __________. respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis
respiratory acidosis
Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______. increased speed of sodium-potassium pump activity in order to compensate for the reduced concentration of potassium ions decreased plasma membrane permeability to potassium ions the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential a craving for more salt in the diet
the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential
What receptors does the brain use to detect changes in osmolality? thermoreceptors baroreceptors osmoreceptors chemoreceptors
osmoreceptors
The role of ADH is to __________. increase water reabsorption decrease water reabsorption produce dilute urine lower blood pressure
increase water reabsorption
Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH? phosphate buffer system bicarbonate buffer system protein buffer system physiological buffering systems
bicarbonate buffer system
Which of the following is the only logical explanation for why hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability and causes muscle tetany? Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the rate of exocytosis of synaptic vesicles. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the likelihood of acetic acid and choline being formed in the synaptic cleft when a neuron is stimulated to the threshold level.
Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated.
Which of the following conditions promotes edema? diabetes mellitus hyponatremia hemorrhage hypoproteinemia
hypoproteinemia
Which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body? ingested foods fat metabolism CO2 in the blood aerobic breakdown of glucose
aerobic breakdown of glucose
What is the hallmark of hypotonic hydration? hypercalcemia hyponatremia hypoproteinemia hypernatremia
hyponatremia
A decrease in blood CO2 levels leads to __________. an increased respiratory rate an increase in carbonic acid an increase in blood pH a drop in blood pH
an increase in blood pH
What results from increased levels of aldosterone? increased Na+ reabsorption decreased Na+ reabsorption increased Ca2+ reabsorption increased K+ reabsorption
increased Na+ reabsorption
The most important renal mechanism for regulating acid-base balance of the blood involves __________. maintaining CO2 balance maintaining water balance maintaining HCO3- balance. maintaining phosphate balance
maintaining HCO3- balance.
Sperm is stored in the __________. ejaculatory duct ductus deferens seminiferous tubules epididymis
epididymis
During vasectomy, what accessory duct is cut as a form of birth control? epididymis ductus (vas) deferens ejaculatory duct urethra
ductus (vas) deferens
A surge in __________ directly triggers ovulation. luteinizing hormone (LH) progesterone estrogen follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
In cervical cancer, which cancer cells that cover the cervical tip are most likely to be abnormal? columnar epithelial cells squamous epithelial cells cuboidal epithelial cells transitional epithelial cells
squamous epithelial cells
Which of the following occurs during spermiogenesis? spermatogonia are produced sperm are produced spermatids are produced sustentacular cells are produced
sperm are produced
A man who has had a successful orchiectomy may still be able to have children because ______. the remaining testis is able, by itself, to produce a sufficient amount of testosterone the seminiferous tubules of the remaining testis are still active the epididymis posterior to the remaining testis is still functional All of the listed responses are correct.
All of the listed responses are correct.
The release of __________ encourages interstitial endocrine cells to release __________. follicle-stimulating hormone; androgen-binding protein luteinizing hormone; testosterone luteinizing hormone; androgen-binding protein inhibin; testosterone
luteinizing hormone; testosterone
Which portion of the penis is removed through a procedure known as circumcision? prepuce (foreskin) crus of the penis bulb of the penis glans penis
prepuce (foreskin)
What hormone promotes ovulation? luteinizing hormone (LH) leptin inhibin progesterone
luteinizing hormone (LH)
Although effective in treating erectile dysfunction, Viagra has the side effect of reducing systemic blood pressure by causing ______. a reduction in cardiac output a reduction in parasympathetic stimulation of penile arterioles relaxation of muscle tissue in arteries decreased blood flow to the ventricular walls
relaxation of muscle tissue in arteries
Which of the following conditions might contribute to an increased probability of having an ectopic pregnancy? reduced blood flow to the ovaries decreased number of cilia in the uterine tubes reduced number of granulosa cells decreased rate of formation of vesicular follicles
decreased number of cilia in the uterine tubes
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the vagina of an adult female? The mucosa of the vagina is stratified squamous epithelium. The vagina is also called the birth canal. The vaginal mucosa lacks glands. The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.
The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.
Which of the following keeps the concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of the spermatogenic cells high to stimulate spermatogenesis? dihydrotestosterone (DHT) GnRH inhibin androgen-binding protein (ABP)
androgen-binding protein (ABP)
Formation of a secondary oocyte occurs during __________. pregnancy the luteal phase ovulation the follicular phase
the follicular phase
Why does meiosis involve two nuclear divisions rather than one, as in mitosis? Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half. Meiosis produces two genetically identical cells through the two nuclear divisions. Meiosis creates gametes with double the original chromosome number. Meiosis produces four cells, each with identical chromosomes.
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.
What part of the female duct system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte? uterus vagina uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct) cervical canal
uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct)
During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle __________. the endometrium prepares for implantation the functional layer of the endometrium regenerates ovulation occurs the endometrium is shed
the endometrium prepares for implantation
Which of the following cells is returned to the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells? primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocyte type A daughter cell or spermatogonium type B daughter cell
type A daughter cell or spermatogonium
Which of the following may aggravate the symptoms of a prolapsed uterus? constipation chronic coughing obesity All of the listed responses are correct.
All of the listed responses are correct.
A varicocele may hinder blood flow through the pampiniform venous plexus; the reduced venous drainage and the resulting elevated testicular temperature may be caused by ______. defective venous valves in the testis elevated systemic arterial blood pressure elevated core body temperature reduced testicular arterial blood flow
defective venous valves in the testis
If embryonic testes do not produce testosterone, a genetic male develops female external genitalia. However, if embryonic testes properly produce testosterone, but a genetic male nevertheless develops female external genitalia, the cause could be ______. a mutation in the gene that codes for development of the paramesonephric ducts a mutation in the gene that codes for the testosterone receptor hyposecretion of MIF hypersecretion of MIF
a mutation in the gene that codes for the testosterone receptor